S1: In standard costing, the 'Idle Time Variance' is always adverse. S2: 'Abnormal Idle Time' is treated as a cost of the period and transferred to the Costing P&L. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
Explanation:
Idle time represents unproductive time, so the variance is always adverse (actual > standard). Normal idle time is absorbed in overheads, but abnormal idle time (due to strikes, accidents) is treated as a period cost and charged to the Costing P&L. Both are correct.
No comments yet. Be the first to start the discussion!